A 42-year-old female presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum. She reports occasional joint pain and shortness of breath. Further investigation reveals elevated levels of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) and non-caseating granulomas on biopsy. A diagnosis of sarcoidosis is suspected. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
[A] Baseline 12-lead electrocardiography should be performed
[B] Treatment of sarcoidosis is indicated for all cases
[C] Corticosteroids are the first line medication
[D] Methotrexate is the second line medication
Scroll down to find the answer at the end! 👇
Need to refresh your memory before answering this question? Head over to Pathway to review the latest guidelines on Sarcoidosis, as well as some landmark trials.
The following summarized guidelines for the evaluation and management of Sarcoidosis are prepared by our editorial team based on guidelines from the American Academy of Family Physicians (AAFP 2024), the American College of Rheumatology (ACR 2023), the European Society of Cardiology (ESC 2023; 2021), among others.